| http://www.w3.org/ns/prov#value | - I understand the argument that the ancient Church could have used an unmistakable expression, incapable of any other translation, and chose not to do so.Perhaps, because they were writing in a time of emergence from Pagan culture, the ancient writers in the Church really did mean to keep their distance from any suggestion that the Godhead has an origin in some sort of mother.
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