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http://webisa.webdatacommons.org/97470270
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Edit: There is a problem with the below argument: just because $f(x) = \lim_{\epsilon o 0} \frac{1}{2\epsilon} (F(x+\epsilon)-F(x-\epsilon))$ exists does not let us conclude that $F$ is differentiable (consider $F(x)=x^{1/3}$ at $x=0$).
http://www.w3.org/ns/prov#wasQuotedFrom
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